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Post by barbiosheepgirl on Sept 20, 2017 15:10:54 GMT -6
stormyknight, I have had this same thought of holding my husband's hand as we are driving tomorrow and the next day, the whole time driving. But moreso too, if the rapture doesn't happen, my mom is worried about her kidney surgery mid= next week. My sister is flying in from out of state on this Sunday, should the Lord tarry. Funny thing is, I am putting off emotions for all that next week stuff. I am even putting off my thoughts for the vendoring we will be doing this weekend, until I see that we are gonna still be around. It is a strange, dynamic feeling. Its weird to say this, but if it doesnt happen then to move on to the next possibilities...that in itself is strange because, could it really happen randomly? My opinion says NO, then my earthly reason says, YES, get back to earthly work. BUT BUT the Lord GOD has been so patterned thru out. Why this SO IMPORTANT piece of HIS puzzle be RANDOM? Hugs across the netwaves, to the entire Unsealed Family!
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holy
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Post by holy on Dec 21, 2018 16:26:46 GMT -6
So, is this verse referring to the pre trib rapture: Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. I don’t see how it possibly can be referring to the day of his second coming. Shouldn’t we be able to compute that day? 1260 days from the abomination of desolation. So yes, that verse In my opinion absolutely has to be referring to the RAPTURE.
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Post by fitz on Dec 21, 2018 16:54:50 GMT -6
And that right there is one of my primary arguments against a Post-Trib understanding. If they want to use Matthew 24....well, they can't have it both ways. The Second Coming should be fairly easy to pinpoint in time. Just count!
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holy
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Post by holy on Dec 21, 2018 17:00:52 GMT -6
And that right there is one of my primary arguments against a Post-Trib understanding. If they want to use Matthew 24....well, they can't have it both ways. The Second Coming should be fairly easy to pinpoint in time. Just count! I don’t even bother trying to convince a Postie to not be one.....their arguments are so illogical. I admit, Marvin Rosenthals Pre Wrath theory was compelling, having the rapture at the 6th seal. If you put the 6th seal before the beginning of Daniels 70th week, you might be able to have a case, but those guys put the sixth seal about 1-2 years after the abomination of desolation. This makes no sense to me because how can the rapture then be sudden and unexpected when all hell is breaking loose on the planet after the abomination and during the great tribulation?
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Post by fitz on Dec 21, 2018 17:08:35 GMT -6
And that right there is one of my primary arguments against a Post-Trib understanding. If they want to use Matthew 24....well, they can't have it both ways. The Second Coming should be fairly easy to pinpoint in time. Just count! I don’t even bother trying to convince a Postie to not be one.....their arguments are so illogical. I admit, Marvin Rosenthals Pre Wrath theory was compelling, having the rapture at the 6th seal. If you put the 6th seal before the beginning of Daniels 70th week, you might be able to have a case, but those guys put the sixth seal about 1-2 years after the abomination of desolation. This makes no sense to me because how can the rapture then be sudden and unexpected when all hell is breaking loose on the planet after the abomination and during the great tribulation? Exactly! Argument #2. ..."when these thing BEGIN to happen, look up, lift up your heads..." not, when all hell is breaking loose...rapture, then sudden destruction!
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holy
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Post by holy on Dec 21, 2018 17:49:31 GMT -6
I don’t even bother trying to convince a Postie to not be one.....their arguments are so illogical. I admit, Marvin Rosenthals Pre Wrath theory was compelling, having the rapture at the 6th seal. If you put the 6th seal before the beginning of Daniels 70th week, you might be able to have a case, but those guys put the sixth seal about 1-2 years after the abomination of desolation. This makes no sense to me because how can the rapture then be sudden and unexpected when all hell is breaking loose on the planet after the abomination and during the great tribulation? Exactly! Argument #2. ..."when these thing BEGIN to happen, look up, lift up your heads..." not, when all hell is breaking loose...rapture, then sudden destruction! You and I are one in thought here. I know some people believe the Olivet Discourse is just for the Jews but I can’t buy that. First off, I’m sure Jesus knew for the first 2000 years since the gospels were written, hardly any Jews would even read the OD..... but I’m sure He knew the Church will definitely be reading it over and over and over (like you and I). Lol. I could give 10 other reasons why that argument doesn’t fly with me, but then it would slow me down for what I really am studying.....could the rapture occur just before or during the Gog Magog War of Ezekiel 38/39? But I guess I should go visit that thread to discuss this seeing that this is an Olivet Discourse thread. 🤦🏻♂️
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Post by venge on Apr 25, 2019 8:38:31 GMT -6
Jesus said the gathering occurs AFTER the tribulation. That's what I believe because Jesus said so! The Parousia and the harpazo happen in close proximity to one another. They are not 7 years apart. For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming (parousia/return - the second coming) of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep. For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: (the last trump) and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up (harpazo) together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. According to Jesus all this happens after the tribulation. Not just that Jamie but that day will not come until a falling away comes and the man of sin is revealed. For him to be revealed means we will see both the falling away or however people define it and the man of sin. Btw, what you quoted was Matthew 24 for those that want to know. Some believe this applies to Jews or tribulation saints. The problem is, where is it said Jews get a special rapture for them? There is just 1 rapture. Two, tribulation saints doesn’t make sense. If the door is closed, how would the body of Christ be raptured after they were raptured? The entire body is removed together, not in stages. Saints after a rapture is not taught but assumed to make that hypothesis stronger. But the only place found where the door shuts is not till the prelude to the bowls. The door is not shut from chapter 1-6. That is why Christ said, build YOUR house (faith) on a rock (Christ) so when the waters and floods (wicked men) beat vehemently on it, you will stand firm and will not be broken. It’s hard to imagine that in the USA, but not in Uganda, Somalia, Iraq, Yemen, Egypt, Turkey, China, and on and on. They experience tribulation now and many have died. Yet Christ did not come yet as he says wait for your fellow brothers and sisters to die as thou had. I am not saying this is the 5th seal. I am saying similarities exist. And he did say After the Tribulation he returns.
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Post by disciple4life on Feb 23, 2020 10:01:59 GMT -6
And that right there is one of my primary arguments against a Post-Trib understanding. If they want to use Matthew 24....well, they can't have it both ways. The Second Coming should be fairly easy to pinpoint in time. Just count!
holy and fitz , your posts here on Dec 21, really were highlighting some great points.
A huge amount of confusion is totally cleared away when we do three very important things. 1. We look at an important phrase taken out of context and misconstrued . ***One of the most fundamental principles of Bible Interpretation is that "before we ask or assume what it means to us [Gentiles] today, in our culture, we have to ask what did it mean to them, [Jewish authors, written to Jewish readers, ] in their day." 2. We harmonize the words of Paul and Christ 3. We have to stop and seriously ask ourselves the question "Are Christ and Paul trying to trick us?"
One of my favorite movies is Princess Bride for many reasons but one is the line when the Giant/Fezzik says to the evil bald guy/Vizzini regarding his overuse of "inconceivable" and he says, "I don't think that means what you think it means".
Nowhere in scripture is there a shred of a verse that says the rapture is imminent or could be any day, any moment.
In fact - what we have are multiple clear examples of us, Christians not being surprised, - the bridesmaids not being surprised by the Groom, and righteous Lot not being surprised by the punishment, and Noah not being surprised by the Flood, and Joseph, - a type of Christ, not being surprised by a random, imminent 7 year famine. Christ himself said to the foolish bridesmaids that they did not know the time/hour. ***many ignore or overlook the point that the 5 wise bridesmaids Did know. -- Were not Surprised.
Many also overlook Paul's words that "you are not children of the darkness/night, but are children of the day so that day will not surprise you like a thief in the night. Gary in the first page mentioned the fact that "No one knows the day or Hour" is a Jewish idiom for the Feast of Trumpets as clear and instantly recognized as "turkey day" to any American.
***This was the only Feast that occurred on the New Moon, and it was sometimes cloudy or rainy, and so the New Moon could not be seen, and so this feast lasts two days- and thus is the "Feast that No One Knows the Day or Hour". This two day Feast literally set the calendar for the entire year, and determined the dates for the weekly Sabbath and the forgiveness of sins. The importance of this cannot be overstated.
Here imagine Fezzik the Giant is saying "I don't think that means what you think it means".
**Matthew is a book by a Jewish author, about a Jewish man, to Jewish audience.
Think about this and let it percolate a minute. What context of Last trumpet was in practice by the audience at the time of Christ. ?? Or in other words, what trumpet were they familiar with and specifically what Last Trumpet?? - The 100th blast at Feast of Trumpets, - also known by Jews as Resurrection day. As stated in other threads, this was impossible that this was referring to the 7th trumpet of Revelation, because Revelation was not even written until approx. 40 years after Paul wrote I Corinthians, and approx. 60 years after Christ ascended so this could not have even entered the minds of the audience of Paul or Christ.
Why would God inspire David to write a Psalm with the wedding context, which parallels the Wedding passage in Matthew, which is explicitly a rapture passage, only for Christians to ignore the Jewish wedding traditions, and then insist that the Rapture is connected with Thanksgiving, or Christmas.
Why would Paul give an idiom, that matches the exact same event, [Moadim, literally translated "Appointed Time"] to which Christ also referred, ?? To trick us? Paul explicitly says in black and white that we will NOT be surprised, - in contrast to those foolish bridesmaids, and those [Non-Christians] who are children of darkness and yet Christians ignore this and believe the notion that the rapture will be a surprise/ any day. It's neither logical nor following sound Hermeneutics.
Let's say a person was Polish/ French mix, and raised in Poland, and they are writing about an event in Poland, and the readers are Polish, and the writer says this event happens on the "Day of Fireworks".
Then, along comes a bunch of Americans, and everyone is like, "Yeah, it's completely obvious, - everyone knows the Day of Fireworks is July 4th, Independence Day." The German, French, Danish, Dutch, Spanish, Polish and Norwegians all instantly know that the European writer, writing about an event in Europe, written to Europeans, is explicitly referring not to American Independence Day, but New Years' Day.
When you look at the context of who wrote it, and the place it was written, and the audience, and then ignore the Hebrew wedding and extrapolate a Western interpretation and then say it shows the rapture could be any day - violates every principle of sound Biblical interpretation.
- Furthermore, when we look at the wedding context, - the Groom came with a shout, and harmonize the words of Christ and the passage in Revelation and the Psalm, and the words of Paul,
- and remember that the "Feasts are a shadow of things to come", [the word for Feasts - Moadim is also translated as rehearsals] and cross reference this with the day count in Daniel and Revelation, we see again, a Hebrew world view, 42 months x 30 days plus added leap month = exactly 1290 days.
- and we look at the fact that as Gary pointed out in the article, but the Greek word for tribulation is not the same as trials and tests that we all face,
- and the cultural piece that the groom literally lifts his bride up and she is carried away into the chupah [Bridal chamber] for 7 days,
then to insist that the wedding doesn't matter, or doesn't apply, and ignore the grammatical context, the cultural context and the order of the feasts, and dismiss all the clues from Paul and Christ, is the same as trying to force an American meaning of the word "Football" on something that every person in every other country on the planet all knows and understands.
I am not of the belief that Christ or Paul was trying to trick us.
Maranatha,
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Post by venge on Feb 23, 2020 19:01:07 GMT -6
disciple4life, What day is Christ espoused? Edit: Feb 25, 2020 What does scripture say happens - on the day when Christ is espoused? You cannot get that answer from a Hebrew or Western historical context. And where does that day fit in the timeline per scripture and not our own understanding?
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Post by disciple4life on Feb 27, 2020 22:23:43 GMT -6
venge, I'm not sure what you're getting at with the kJV/ old english wording. If there is a question or subject from the Bible and the answer is clearly stated in scripture, then we can be sure that it is from a Hebrew worldview. Maybe just say your view and share how it relates to this topic and every one can chime in.
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Post by venge on Feb 28, 2020 7:59:46 GMT -6
venge, I'm not sure what you're getting at with the kJV/ old english wording. If there is a question or subject from the Bible and the answer is clearly stated in scripture, then we can be sure that it is from a Hebrew worldview. Maybe just say your view and share how it relates to this topic and every one can chime in. What day is Christ married? Based on your knowledge, what day does scripture say he’s married on? I can’t ask it simpler than that. Let me try it this way, In your own understanding: How many times in he married? When is he married? Please, only scripture to support whatever notion you hold to.
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Post by disciple4life on Feb 28, 2020 15:45:03 GMT -6
venge , I'm not sure what you're getting at with the kJV/ old english wording. If there is a question or subject from the Bible and the answer is clearly stated in scripture, then we can be sure that it is from a Hebrew worldview. Maybe just say your view and share how it relates to this topic and every one can chime in. What day is Christ married? Based on your knowledge, what day does scripture say he’s married on? I can’t ask it simpler than that. Let me try it this way, In your own understanding: How many times in he married? When is he married? Please, only scripture to support whatever notion you hold to. Venge,
OK, I'm happy to cite the verse with a caveat --
I find your request to only use scripture to support my point as very strange.
1, First, it's not sound principles of Biblical interpretation to suggest, insist that a serious student of scripture ignores cultural and or Historical context and/or extra-Biblical sources as evidence. Gary does this, as does mike and yardstick and fitz, and boraddict and kjs and every single reputable Bible scholar.
2. Second, it's strange because it's a standard you yourself don't follow, as you often cite commentaries, and so, I don't agree to this. I don't expect you will agree with the answer, but we can agree to disagree.
So to answer your question as to "What day is Christ married" - the question needs a bit of unpacking. In multiple passages in the epistles of Paul we are told that we, the Church/ Christians are the bride of Christ, in the present tense, but it's more like we are betrothed,/ engaged, and Christ the groom has promised to return for his Bride, while he prepares a place for his bride.
So scripture is clear that we are already Christ's bride, and he claims his bride, with a shout, at the rapture, when we are gathered together with him, lifted up, - snatched up quickly.
So if we ask "According to scripture, when was the wedding, or when will the wedding take place," there are several scriptures that we should consider and harmonize.
One is Christ's words himself -in the well-known parable of the wedding in Matthew 25 Matthew 25 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)
The Parable of the Ten Bridesmaids
25 “Then the kingdom of heaven will be like this. Ten bridesmaids took their lamps and went to meet the bridegroom. 2 Five of them were foolish, and five were wise. 3 When the foolish took their lamps, they took no oil with them; 4 but the wise took flasks of oil with their lamps. 5 As the bridegroom was delayed, all of them became drowsy and slept. 6 But at midnight there was a shout, ‘Look! Here is the bridegroom! Come out to meet him.’ 7 Then all those bridesmaids got up and trimmed their lamps. 8 The foolish said to the wise, ‘Give us some of your oil, for our lamps are going out.’ 9 But the wise replied, ‘No! there will not be enough for you and for us; you had better go to the dealers and buy some for yourselves.’ 10 And while they went to buy it, the bridegroom came, and those who were ready went with him into the wedding banquet; and the door was shut. 11 Later the other bridesmaids came also, saying, ‘Lord, lord, open to us.’ 12 But he replied, ‘Truly I tell you, I do not know you.’ 13 Keep awake therefore, for you know neither the day nor the hour.
This is a rapture passage, So Christ comes to claim his bride at the rapture, Harpazo. Technically, we are betrothed to Christ, and he has promised to return.
Revelation 19:6-9 English Standard Version (ESV)
The Marriage Supper of the Lamb
6 Then I heard what seemed to be the voice of a great multitude, like the roar of many waters and like the sound of mighty peals of thunder, crying out, “Hallelujah! For the Lord our God the Almighty reigns. 7 Let us rejoice and exult and give him the glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and his Bride has made herself ready; 8 it was granted her to clothe herself with fine linen, bright and pure”—
for the fine linen is the righteous deeds of the saints. 9 And the angel said to me, “Write this: Blessed are those who are invited to the marriage supper of the Lamb.” And he said to me, “These are the true words of God.”
So from the context of Revelation 19: 6-9, and the text itself says the marriage supper of the lamb. For clarity, this topic heading is also found in multiple translations, to show the context is the Marriage Supper of the Lamb.
So when we look at the imagery of the Hebrew wedding tradition, we know that the Groom comes with a shout - and he comes for his bride. Then, she is literally lifted up and carried away into the wedding chamber [the chupah] for 7 days, and we see this same imagery again in Psalms 27 as @gary mentions in his article on the home page.
She [The Bride] is with the Groom in the Chupah for 7 days, [the unmistakably clear parallel to the 7 year tribulation period] and they have the marriage supper, which we see in Revelation 19:6-9
["Using first century rabbinical methods of story telling and themes of the Jewish Festivals, Jesus told his disciples in story form what day and hour the home taking of the bride was to be expected. This is understood by the terminology. In telling this story of the ten bridesmaids, Jesus says "The virgins who were ready went in with him to the wedding banquet. and the door was shut. Again, when you see a door or gate opened, it is a picture of the first day of the seventh month, Rosh Hashanah. This wedding concept is used over and over by Jesus, Matthew, Paul, and Johnand moany others. It refers to the bridegroom coming to claim his betrothed bride and taking here to the wedding chamber (chupah) Once inside, the door is shut and the bride and groom are concealed. During concealment, there is a celebration with an abundance of food and wine. Consequently, Jesus says, 'The Virgins/bridesmaids who were ready went in with him to the wedding banquet and the door was shut." This is a clear sign that He is talking about the first day of the seventh month." ] Avi Ben Mordecai, Jewish scholar, author, raised Orthodox, became Messianic Jew. 'Signs in the Heavens'
Blessings, Hope this post is encouraging and enlightening to all. I give Avi Ben Mordecai's book a 5 ***** recommendation. Mind-blowing, how many things come to life that we miss and misunderstand, by not understanding the lens of the Hebrew world view, and all the things that we can never grasp without understanding the history and culture of Jesus time.
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Post by venge on Feb 28, 2020 17:23:41 GMT -6
disciple4life , Thank you for taking time to get back to me. First, I'd like to respond to some statements made. Yes, I have used commentaries and outside sources such as Webster's dictionary to explain critical issues in past posts. I had asked you to use the Bible for the my question because I am looking for specific scripture that I am unsure if it exists in more then one place. Obviously, scripture can only be found in our text. I am not looking for the doctrine of man on ancient middle eastern weddings. God allows everything to be known in his word. Sometimes some words need clarification or we can look at the multiple meanings of a word/words. But in this scenario, I think the Bible is all we need. I'd like to ask you about the scripture you posted. I will post it below for viewing. As I began to read your response to my question, you had mentioned this specific group of verses regards the wedding supper. But I noticed in verse 7, it says the marriage has come. I thought this to be interesting because the bride is not wearing filthy garments, but white ones. Wouldn't you see this as her being received to him? As previously to this episode, she was not arraigned in white as a saint. And as I continued reading, because of this marriage, now there can be a wedding feast. You had also linked the parable of the 10 virgins and had "bolded" the time when the 5 wise were received. Do you see this as a specific time frame or do you understand this at a late hour in pitch darkness? I look forward to your respectful reply.
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Post by Natalie on Feb 28, 2020 18:56:07 GMT -6
Just wanting some clarification on this sentence from you.
(edited to add this one too) and this, Do you have Scripture that supports this?
When we believe in Christ, aren't we given His righteousness which would be symbolized by the white garments? Therefore, the bride is never ever in filthy garments. Filthy garments are worn by those who are trying to gain righteousness by their works, not by faith.
I guess my understanding of "fine linen is the righteous deeds of the saints" corresponds with Ephesians 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.
By His righteousness we do our good deeds that He has set before us. That's why we are dressed in white, because of what He has done. We are made clean the moment we believe. (Ps 51:7; Isaiah 1:18)
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Post by boraddict on Feb 28, 2020 20:36:05 GMT -6
venge , is Rev. 19:8 KJV correct that states "righteousness of saints" or Rev. 19:8 that states "righteous deeds of the saints"? I had always thought the verse was referencing the mindset of the saints and not the deeds of the saints.
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