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Post by Natalie on Aug 27, 2020 10:33:40 GMT -6
So...if you agree with that last post of mine... it seems the Temple cannot be true believers in the 2 Thes 2 passage. It must be something else.
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Post by disciple4life on Aug 27, 2020 17:55:18 GMT -6
This is a question for anyone - when does it go from sin to lawlessness? I know that's not a clear line that you can say "Oh, I'm close but I'm not lawless yet." For an example - I know a couple who profess to be Christians, they are kind, generous, law abiding people, trust in Christ for their salvation. They are not married but are living as if they are. Obviously they are in sin. They also have the attitude that "It's my life and this is how I am going to live it" when this sin is addressed. Are they lawless or just sinning? I guess in my mind I see lawlessness as an outright disregard for God and His laws - any or all of it. Whereas my example above, they don't disregard God, but they are disobeying Him. I see the man of lawlessness deceiving unbelievers 2 Thes 2:10 "for those who are perishing, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved." If you believe in Jesus for your salvation, you have loved the truth and been saved. You may be in disobedience (even more so than my couple above), you may be leaning on your own understanding (rosary beads) but You are still His child, still have the Holy Spirit, although you may be deeply grieving that Spirit. You may even be experiencing God's discipline.
I guess to me, if you are outright lawless then you don't actually belong to Christ.
You said it very well, Natalie . All of us have places in our lives where we still fall short and have to repent. Of course there are lots of subtle tones and nuances regarding people who turn aside from the faith, back-slide, or fall from Grace, and what that looks like. There are even a few threads regarding The Great Falling Away/Apostasy, and what it means etc. As Natalie also mentioned earlier, - while this is true - it is a gross violation of Basic Bible interpretation to take the passage of Paul - which is not allegory or poetry, or symbolic genre, and he says that the Son of Perdition will be revealed. This is a very explicit and precise title for the Anti-Christ, and not a general collective term for Christians nor is it a generic collective term for God haters - People who are burning and looting Kenosha and Portland and Baltimore. This also underscores why it's so vitally important to let scripture interpret scripture and cross-reference and look at other passages and look at the specific context. The Son of Perdition is a real person who stands in the Holy of Holies, and will do something so horrible that it's an abomination, but it's something that people will literally see with their eyes, and the Jews will instantly recognize it as defiling the literal physical temple. The perfect example of this was when Antiochus Epiphanes erected a statue of the Greek god Zeus, and sacrificed a pig in the temple. Every Jew from every corner of the world recognizes that pigs are unclean, and not to be touched or eaten. ***Important note - the sacrificial animals = Cows, sheep and goats - are animals that are clean and can be eaten. I dearly love Chili's restaurant - it's totally comfort food, but as much as i like it - it's ludicrous to say that the Holy Place is Chilis, or Applebees or The Highest peak in the Smoky mountains. One of the most basic, fundamental principles of Hermeneutics is that "before we can ask what does this passage mean to me, we have to ask, What did it mean to them, in their time, and their culture - Mixed, Gentile/ Jewish audience, in Jerusalem, where 1/3 of the population was military, and 1/3 were slaves. One passage in the Gospels talks about Christ being at the feast of dedication and 95% of people gloss right over it. Why? They don't have a Jewish worldview. We can think it was a baby dedication, and draw all sorts of lessons, but the fact is that it wasn't a baby dedication - it was Hanukkah. The Dedication of the Temple. This brings us back to the main topic - The Temple of God. The Temple was not unholy - in fact, Christ himself taught there, and he himself said it was his Father's house. It was the epicenter for all worship in all of Israel. Christ's death was the perfect sacrifice for the sins of the whole world, and at his death, the veil of the temple was torn in two - literally opening up the physical Holy of Holies, which up to that time, was only for the high priest. This was an example of a literal, physical thing, which had a higher, spiritual concept. Christians everywhere, for the most part - understand that we don't need to kill sheep now, or sacrifice lambs for forgiveness. Tens of millions of Catholics, however, still believe that we don't have direct access to God. They are blinded, but there are some who are truly born again, and don't worship Mary, and believe in Salvation by faith alone. There is a long and well-documented hatred of Jews by the Catholic church and this disdain for Jews and Jewish culture has crept into the mainline protestant churches over the centuries. God is not finished with the Jewish people and there eyes will be opened to the truth, in the time of Jacob's trouble. Daniel was a Jew, and his vision was for the Jewish people, - and it's very very significant that while Daniel was lifted up, taken out of the fiery furnace - his Jewish friends were in the furnace, but not burned up. What i would like, is for someone to answer 3 very simple questions 1. if all the physical things regarding the temple, - menorah, plans, instruments, garments and priests, and red heifer are real. ?? I see them as very real, - not symbolic. 2. Then, explain why would the Jews be gathering all these things, and spending lots of time and money and research, if the temple is symbolic. ?? 3. Regardless of your own opinion - what did the phrase "the Holy Place" mean to the audience in the 1st century church -Mostly Jews? Blessings, Disciple4life
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Post by stormyknight on Aug 27, 2020 20:24:44 GMT -6
This is a question for anyone - when does it go from sin to lawlessness? I know that's not a clear line that you can say "Oh, I'm close but I'm not lawless yet." For an example - I know a couple who profess to be Christians, they are kind, generous, law abiding people, trust in Christ for their salvation. They are not married but are living as if they are. Obviously they are in sin. They also have the attitude that "It's my life and this is how I am going to live it" when this sin is addressed. Are they lawless or just sinning? I guess in my mind I see lawlessness as an outright disregard for God and His laws - any or all of it. Whereas my example above, they don't disregard God, but they are disobeying Him. I see the man of lawlessness deceiving unbelievers 2 Thes 2:10 "for those who are perishing, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved." If you believe in Jesus for your salvation, you have loved the truth and been saved. You may be in disobedience (even more so than my couple above), you may be leaning on your own understanding (rosary beads) but You are still His child, still have the Holy Spirit, although you may be deeply grieving that Spirit. You may even be experiencing God's discipline.
I guess to me, if you are outright lawless then you don't actually belong to Christ.
may I interject something here? I'm reading through all these posts and here and there I pick up minor discrepancies that make a big difference in meaning. Natalie, if you don't mind I'll use yours as an example.
You asked, "when does it go from sin to lawlessness?" One thing to remember is that the actual definition of sin is "missing the mark", so thinking like an arrow hitting a target, we all miss the mark. We all sin. Some get closer to the center than others and some are way out on the straw. But they are still hitting the target. They still believe in Jesus Christ. Just like your friends.
You later defined lawlessness from scripture itself, "...because they refused to love the truth and so be saved". That right there is a conscious act of refusal.
There are other examples. Earlier venge quoted scripture about "a more perfect tabernacle" and then later stated that the physical tabernacle was imperfect. While I don't disagree that the physical is imperfect, my contention is that the original thought was "a more perfect tabernacle", implying that the former, though less perfect, was not imperfect. My point is how we understand the words we use. We grew up in western culture and our world is vastly different than that of 1st century Middle Eastern cultures. We don't think the same. The term "sin" in our world has a more sinister connotation than it did then. Missing the mark seems to lean toward, "well, you're not perfect, but you're trying and you're hitting the target". How many times, especially lately, have you seen seemingly crazed persons yelling at others, "you're a sinner and you're goin' ta hell!!" Really? Yes I am a sinner, but I"m trying and no I don't think I'm going to hell because Jesus Christ paid my debt and He said I would be with Him and be like Him.
So, Natalie, when you said "obviously they are in sin", by your statement I can assume you mean their marriage. My question would be; what constitutes a marriage? Is there a set rule of how two people become husband and wife? Were Adam and Eve married? In my heart I feel that one only needs at least a couple of witnesses and a profession before God that you are committing yourselves to each other. Yes, the State laws require that you sign a certificate and pay a fee, but that's the secular side of it. In that respect, does that mean that all those people who only went to the Justice of the Peace to get married are living in sin? I would say no... and yes. because we all live in sin, we miss the mark daily, but couples who commit themselves to each other are seen as a couple, partners, husband and wife. Surely they told their friends about their commitment making their friends witnesses. How do we judge otherwise?
I guess what I'm getting at is that we, as God's children, to better understand each other and the scripture, need to focus on the meaning of the words if there is a disagreement of meaning. What word is used in the original text and what does that word mean in it's context. I feel that when there is disagreement on meaning, a wedge can develop and the Adversary will take full advantage of it and hit that wedge hard, trying to drive us apart. We know God won't let us slip through His fingers, but, hey, we need to do our part too, right? Don't hang on to those old "standard" definitions that have been warped through the centuries. Shed that shackles of misinformation and delve deeper in to the truth. Search out what God has hidden in His word. It was hidden for a reason and whatever the reason, it makes us stronger in faith to search and find the truth of a matter.
Natalie, I pray you don't take this as an attack on you. That is not my intention at all. I hope that using your post as an example we all can come to a better knowledge of how our understandings have been changed. We need God's Holy Spirit to guide us back to what He means, not what we think he means.
May our Lord Jesus Christ bless us all with understanding and love. I pray that God, our Father, fill us with His Holy and Glorious Spirit to lead us through the fog of historical misinformation to the truth of His Word that we will shine ever brighter at His calling.
Sorry for this short interruption, please resume your regular program.
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Post by Natalie on Aug 27, 2020 21:01:14 GMT -6
stormyknight, no, I don't see it as an attack. I guess that's where the struggle is for me - are we meaning the same things with the words we are using? That's why I was seeking clarification on lawlessness and can believers be lawless. Is lawlessness just a slip in faith or it is more? I also believe that it's not necessary to have a ceremony and signed paper for it to be a marriage. There's more to the story, there usually is. I won't go into details, but they don't refer to each other has husband and wife. There has been talk of getting married but always "someday" or "if we get married". (They were both married to others when they first moved in together.) So, are they lawless or disobedient children? So, maybe I could have picked a different example but that one is a visible one for me and one I am struggling with (the lady is my mother-in-law).
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Post by stormyknight on Aug 28, 2020 8:22:46 GMT -6
My second daughter is in the same kind of relationship. I finally gave in and now call him my son-in-law. Is that witnessing? idk Common Law marriage in Kansas is three years, I think. They've been together a lot longer than that.
I'm thinking lawlessness is a conscious act where sinning, which takes a serious conscious effort not to, is what we are doomed to repeat even though we believe. That's why Jesus had to die for us.
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Post by mike on Aug 28, 2020 9:29:02 GMT -6
This is a question for anyone - when does it go from sin to lawlessness? I know that's not a clear line that you can say "Oh, I'm close but I'm not lawless yet." For an example - I know a couple who profess to be Christians, they are kind, generous, law abiding people, trust in Christ for their salvation. They are not married but are living as if they are. Obviously they are in sin. They also have the attitude that "It's my life and this is how I am going to live it" when this sin is addressed. Are they lawless or just sinning? I guess in my mind I see lawlessness as an outright disregard for God and His laws - any or all of it. Whereas my example above, they don't disregard God, but they are disobeying Him. I see the man of lawlessness deceiving unbelievers 2 Thes 2:10 "for those who are perishing, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved." If you believe in Jesus for your salvation, you have loved the truth and been saved. You may be in disobedience (even more so than my couple above), you may be leaning on your own understanding (rosary beads) but You are still His child, still have the Holy Spirit, although you may be deeply grieving that Spirit. You may even be experiencing God's discipline.
I guess to me, if you are outright lawless then you don't actually belong to Christ. First I think we need to ask and/or qualify what is sin? And what is lawlessness? 1 John seems to implicate they are one in the same 1John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. Also direct from the Greek Everyone committing sin also lawlessness commits and sin is lawlessness458 anomía (from 1 /A "not" and 3551 /nómos, "law") – properly, without law; lawlessness; the utter disregard for God's law (His written and living Word). 458 /anomía ("lawlessness") includes the end-impact of law breaking – i.e. its negative influence on a person's soul (status before God) 266 /hamartía ("sin, forfeiture because missing the mark") is the brand of sin that emphasizes its self-originated (self-empowered) nature – i.e. it is not originated or empowered by God (i.e. not of faith, His inworked persuasion, cf. Ro 14:23) In light of these definitions of the words, they appear to be the same, however: 1John 5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.Also direct from the Greek If anyone see the brother of him sinning a sin not unto death he shall ask and He will give him life to those sinning not unto death. There is a sin unto death not concerning that do I say he should implore.
Now I do not want to get too far off the topic with the sin that does not lead to death...AND there are sins we commit that we dont realize are sins or are unintentional (Num 15:27) Got Questions has a nice write up on the difference between sin, transgression and iniquity tying it back to 1 John 3:4 So some sin is not necessarily willful, however lawlessness is willful.
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Post by mike on Aug 28, 2020 9:30:19 GMT -6
Natalie This is a tough post for me but...Some of you know parts of my story and a portion of my testimony of restoration back to the Lord is found here. A few years back after my divorce I began my relationship with my (current) wife. During this period of my life I was walking in rebellion to God. I did what I wanted when I wanted and had very little regard for others or God and His ways. I lived in debauchery. Pretty much name it and I lived it...What a fool, what a fool. I am not proud of any of that but provide it for a little context. Even before the time of restoration my wife and I had already been engaged. We lived in separate apartments due to our children being in schools in different towns. I didnt want to move in with her because we agreed to do what was best for the kids. Pulling them out of school to live together was something we both agreed we wouldnt do. And me moving away from my daughter would mean I wouldnt be available for her during the weekdays to pick up after school or take for the weeknights I was supposed to. Even though we (wife & I ) lived 11 miles apart, we said it would be too much for me to only see my daughter every other weekend and not be available for her mid week. As the Lord restored me back to Himself I began to see the error of my ways a little at a time. I was not suddenly free from the bondages to sin/sins I was committing. Some of those I was not even aware of at the time. As this restoring continued I contemplated the very topic here. My fiancee and I were fully committed to one another, other people knew of this it was no secret. As I searched the scripture for what it meant to be husband and wife I continued to find the terms "...took a wife". Never was there a ceremony or prescription as to how to get to the point of being married, just always 'taking a wife'. In some cases taking a wife seemed to me to be a forceful type of event, not something agreed to but arranged. When we had finally decide it was time to move forward and live together, we agreed to find a home close to where I lived so I could continue to see my little girl. Her youngest was just about 16, and she wanted to keep him in his same school. She decided she would drive him to and from school for the year. So we had overcome that piece of the problem. We were committed, engaged people understood this but hadnt had an 'official' ceremony. Although I was a rest with my relationship with my fiancee, my mother pointed out a few things to me that made more sense than my position at that time. What would be the witness to the children? The children wouldnt understand the perspective I had. When they became older and wanted to move in together would they in turn say "you lived together before marriage" and that was the kicker for me. While our hearts were settled that we were justified before God, we werent in the eyes of others who may not have understood. Now I believe the Lord honored this and moved mightily for us. Our home purchase closing date was in late November (right about Thanksgiving). This "light bulb" moment was also at that time. We contacted our local municipality for our marriage paperwork, which they were able to expedite. In addition the county courthouse first said "we have availability in the new year". But this was after our close and move in date. The courthouse called and said we had a cancellation with a date of December 12...I moved in December 1 (or so) My wife December 17th. We were married before living together
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Post by Natalie on Aug 28, 2020 10:56:50 GMT -6
Thanks, Mike, for the link. I guess I see lawlessness as how they describe iniquity. There is no fear of God or fear of discipline from Him. I agree, it's a willful thing. Like in Romans, God has left evidence for Himself yet people do not acknowledge Him and live as they please. Or for a believer, they know God wouldn't approve, but they do it anyway. But I also know that God disciplines His children and calls them to return to Him. That's one of the themes running through the OT.
But to go back to the man of sin sitting in the Temple. If this were the Church (true followers) wouldn't he have to be "sitting" in every Christian? Would it be possible to say he is sitting in the Temple if it was only 20% or 45% or even 80%? God always has His remnant of true followers, so I don't believe that it would ever be 100%. Wouldn't that mean the gates of hell have prevailed? Every Christian living lives of iniquity?
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Post by Natalie on Aug 28, 2020 11:02:50 GMT -6
Yes, this. Although I think MIL's situation as a bit messier, in that he did not get a divorce from his wife right away. He was still legally married and supporting her financially for several years after he and MIL moved in together. My question was, what kind of witness are they being to their grandchildren?
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Post by mike on Aug 28, 2020 11:25:16 GMT -6
Thanks, Mike, for the link. I guess I see lawlessness as how they describe iniquity. There is no fear of God or fear of discipline from Him. I agree, it's a willful thing. Like in Romans, God has left evidence for Himself yet people do not acknowledge Him and live as they please. Or for a believer, they know God wouldn't approve, but they do it anyway. But I also know that God disciplines His children and calls them to return to Him. That's one of the themes running through the OT.
But to go back to the man of sin sitting in the Temple. If this were the Church (true followers) wouldn't he have to be "sitting" in every Christian? Would it be possible to say he is sitting in the Temple if it was only 20% or 45% or even 80%? God always has His remnant of true followers, so I don't believe that it would ever be 100%. Wouldn't that mean the gates of hell have prevailed? Every Christian living lives of iniquity? That was basically my point earlier in the thread. Sitting in a human temple would require 100%, not 99%, 87.3%, 38.9% - ALL I do have some other things Id like to inject into this topic but I think we've destroyed this thread and may need a new one or break this one off at some point to its own. I'm considering this topic combined with falling away/apostasy as I have some thoughts on this I'd like to discuss with the larger group ALSO - for those following along. stormyknight asked if it was ok to interject. While the discussion was between a few folks, it is always ok to chime in. We should remain decent and orderly
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Post by Natalie on Aug 28, 2020 11:36:13 GMT -6
We could shut this one and start other ones - including one on news/thoughts on progress for an actual temple (which I think is where this thread was originally). We could also separate the lawlessness part into it's own thread. Do whatever you think is best and we will follow you.
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Post by stormyknight on Aug 28, 2020 11:43:33 GMT -6
Thanks, Mike, for the link. I guess I see lawlessness as how they describe iniquity. There is no fear of God or fear of discipline from Him. I agree, it's a willful thing. Like in Romans, God has left evidence for Himself yet people do not acknowledge Him and live as they please. Or for a believer, they know God wouldn't approve, but they do it anyway. But I also know that God disciplines His children and calls them to return to Him. That's one of the themes running through the OT.
But to go back to the man of sin sitting in the Temple. If this were the Church (true followers) wouldn't he have to be "sitting" in every Christian? Would it be possible to say he is sitting in the Temple if it was only 20% or 45% or even 80%? God always has His remnant of true followers, so I don't believe that it would ever be 100%. Wouldn't that mean the gates of hell have prevailed? Every Christian living lives of iniquity? That was basically my point earlier in the thread. Sitting in a human temple would require 100%, not 99%, 87.3%, 38.9% - ALLI do have some other things Id like to inject into this topic but I think we've destroyed this thread and may need a new one or break this one off at some point to its own. I'm considering this topic combined with falling away/apostasy as I have some thoughts on this I'd like to discuss with the larger group ALSO - for those following along. stormyknight asked if it was ok to interject. While the discussion was between a few folks, it is always ok to chime in. We should remain decent and orderly Probably a good idea on separating the streams of conversation
but one point I'd like to put in here before you do and you can put it in the proper thread. I just went back and re-read the inter-linear verse of 2 Thess. 2:4 and it literally says that the son of perdition will "seat himself in the Temple of God and demonstrate that he is god." Many versions say "proclaim", but the word seems to lean toward "demonstrate" as in, he will do some thing to make people believe he is god.
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Post by barbiosheepgirl on Aug 28, 2020 16:51:17 GMT -6
I'd like to interject though I have not yet looked back at what might have caused confusion in my thought process...
The Apostacy and the MofL being revealed, from what I perceive, seem to be a synonymous event for me.
WHY? because those that "fall away", those that come to "deny" what they formally "believed" , were relying on their own inner heart for the measure of their goodness and lawfulness. The apostacy reveals the son of perdition. I see it as this whole dual thing will be quite obvious to those who KNOW the voice of their Shepherd. That is why there are multiple warnings to not follow the false christ. In the context of Thess, many were not falling away but Coming To. The ministry of CHrist was just beginning, and yet within the new "believers" there were those creeping in. This has been an ongoing beasthood within Christianity all along, probably after the last eyewitness to the original Event had died.
So I DO NOT believe, nor did I intend to say that the Spirit-filled Christian is vulnerable to the Apostacy or could become a son of perdition. No. scripture does not suggest this. However, we do not know the heart of a person, and in whom they are truly resting their faith. This has been my point.
The word believe is a tough word for me because I can believe something to be true, but not rely on it to be true. Does that make sense? I can believe a horse is broke to ride, but not rely on it to "take care of me" if that cow turns a wild eye and tries to take us out. true story by the way...
so something will happen, if it hasn't already, that shakes the "faith" of the "church goers" Goers, not the Followers. There is a difference. We need to be there for these folks whose faith in their own whatever, is shaken. That is my point.
I talked to mom about this discussion, and it led to this topic which needs a thread and we need to talk about this.
Are ALL Believers (if you chose that word in the context of Faith, trusting in the Lord of whom can't be seen, and in all He stands for and does), are all ALL Believers annointed with the Holy Spirit at the onset of this belief? My mom asked this pointedly to a pastor who was taught some interesting things about this very topic. I am curious my ownself. Are ALL believers Spirit-filled at the onset of "conversion"?
need for a third temple? No, will there be a physical one? yes likely, and it seems to be happening, so.... but that very attempt to house God in a temple made with hands is THE AoD, ...imho.... conclusion: 2Thes is not talking about a 3rd temple but focusing on the Apostacy and how Jesus will put an end to whatever lies the churches have spread, which caused the apostacy in the first place.
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Post by Natalie on Aug 28, 2020 18:28:12 GMT -6
So I DO NOT believe, nor did I intend to say that the Spirit-filled Christian is vulnerable to the Apostacy or could become a son of perdition. No. scripture does not suggest this. However, we do not know the heart of a person, and in whom they are truly resting their faith. This has been my point.
But...
It says the son of perdition sits in the Temple. If followers of Christ are the Temple of God and the Temple of the Holy Spirit, then it does seem to say that the son of perdition is in followers of Christ (spirit-filled Christian as you put it).
The only other choice is if the Temple does not mean the Body of Christ but something else.
This is what I am trying to understand for those that say it's not a physical temple or a physical man.
Yes, I believe you receive and are sealed with the Holy Spirit at the moment of your salvation (conversion - whatever name you want to give it)
Eph 1:13 when you believed on Him, you are sealed with the Holy Spirit (also Eph 4:30)
Romans 8:9 believers have the Spirit in them (also Romans 8:11)
2 Cor 1:21-22 seals us and gives us the Spirit in our hearts
2 Cor 5:5 we are given the Spirit as a guarantee
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Post by venge on Aug 28, 2020 20:10:37 GMT -6
That was basically my point earlier in the thread. Sitting in a human temple would require 100%, not 99%, 87.3%, 38.9% - ALLI do have some other things Id like to inject into this topic but I think we've destroyed this thread and may need a new one or break this one off at some point to its own. I'm considering this topic combined with falling away/apostasy as I have some thoughts on this I'd like to discuss with the larger group ALSO - for those following along. stormyknight asked if it was ok to interject. While the discussion was between a few folks, it is always ok to chime in. We should remain decent and orderly Probably a good idea on separating the streams of conversation
but one point I'd like to put in here before you do and you can put it in the proper thread. I just went back and re-read the inter-linear verse of 2 Thess. 2:4 and it literally says that the son of perdition will "seat himself in the Temple of God and demonstrate that he is god." Many versions say "proclaim", but the word seems to lean toward "demonstrate" as in, he will do some thing to make people believe he is god.
Couldnt that be his exalting himself above all that exists?
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