Hey brother, concerned about a couple statements here:
What makes you think this? The holy spirit leads us in all truth.
krnboitae either we believe it we don't. Jesus is taking us all or none. There is no measurements to being raptured. Lukewarm is not referring to being raptured. Even if you weren't awake and the rapture happened, you would've been taken. You'd have been quite surprised but taken nonetheless.
Yes all people who truly believe and have holy spirit will be raptured.
I will pray that holy spirit will protect me from temptations that lead to astray. This is what I am meaning.
Hot - Passionate love for Jesus
Cold - People who recently got saved or saved just before the rapture and truly believe (baby christian=short time christian)
Lukewarm - Example - Myself in the past (long time church goer, living in sin, no remorse for sins, fake repenting and keep sinning again, holy spirit completely gone , basically fake fake christian serving satan or athiest attending church, attitude of theres no such thing as God but still attends church for other reasons)
After reading, rev 3:16, I was very scared of God. He will spit me out if I kept on doing lukewarm way of life. I was going to hell and Jesus was going to say I never knew you if I stayed lukewarm. This is my understanding of lukewarm.
By my understanding and definition, lukewarm wouldnt get raptured just like 5 virgins who got left behind. Oil is the holy spirit. If holy spirit is completely gone, they will be left behind.
Where to start....
...First, the Parable of the Ten Virgins isn't about the Rapture. It is told to the Jews during the time in the Passover Week where they recite the Song of Solomon. It's actually a midrash teaching on Song of Solomon 3 and 5, and that book is really about Christ's relationship with the bride who believed in chapters 1-4 (the wise Virgin) an the one that didn't in chapters 5-8. It's really about the Jews who missed Christ in and after His first coming - keep in mind this is told in a gospel written to show the Jews that Christ is their King and Messiah, and that the Gentile church wasn't even a thing yet.
...Second, Read 2 Thessalonians 4-5 again and check the Greek. Paul uses two words for "sleep" in his writings. He uses both in 1 Thess. 4 and 5.
In 1 Thess 4, the word is koimaō, like in v.15. This is Paul's word for dead Christians, to differentiate them from the dead unbelievers. In 1 Thess. 4 he uses that word to let the readers know that those believers that are physically dead will not miss the rapture:
www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2837&t=KJV1 Thess. 5 is where it gets interesting. In verses 6 and 10 he switches to another word for sleep, katheudō, (
www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2518&t=KJV ) which according to the lexicons can metaphorically mean "yield to sloth and sin" or "to be indifferent to one's salvation". Why the switch if he meant the same thing as koimao earlier? Read verse 6, it makes no sense if he's talking about physically dead people. He's talking about not being given to sin and instead being alert for the Lord's return.
And it's the same word in v.10:
Did you read that? Whether or not we are spiritually awake or yielded to sin, we will be with the Lord!
It's a matter of rewards at the Bema Seat. As we yeild ourselves to the Lord he will grace us with more joy, peace, and if you study how the tribes of Israel were laid out in the promised land with those most faithful closest to Jerusalem, it MAY determine our proximity to the Lord in the re-creation. Read this:
bible.org/article/doctrine-rewards-judgment-seat-bema-christBTW, I'm not a huge fan of this guy or his followers, but he does do some good writing. This is a very good book in it's analysis of Greek words and their use in the Bible:
www.amazon.com/dp/B008NB9YF0/ref=dp-kindle-redirect?_encoding=UTF8&btkr=1...As for "lukewarm"....ironically, the meaning of this is actually is in Luke 7. Let me start from the beginning:
One of the things people "insert" into scripture, is the idea of "genuine/saving/true" faith, when in the Bible there is only "faith". What the Bible emphasizes isn't some special kind of faith that the saved have that the unsaved world doesn't, like Lordship Salvationists say. After all, is the person who tries to meet their "distinctives" , i.e. works, really showing any greater kind of faith than the Muslim who blows himself up in jihad, believing that doing so gains him paradise? What of the Buddhist monks who light themselves on fire for a political cause, thinking they'll be reincarnated? That takes A LOT of faith to bet your life on your beliefs like that.
The core question of the Bible isn't what one does that shows they have the super-faith that the reprobate don't; it's the question of
"what is your faith in?". One of my favorite parables to bring up in this debate that shows this plainly is Luke 18:9-14:
To me, this Pharisee sounds like many in the church, who think they're a special class of genuine Christians. He did works of faith, he tried to follow the law...he even gave credit to God; but, ultimately, his faith was in himself and his own righteousness. He looked down on other sinners with greater sins than himself. Yet, in the modern church, this man would be looked upon as a great man of God who had "genuine faith"; the one that should be justified with all his good works showing his great faith. He even gives credit to God! The Tax Collector would be looked down upon as simply looking for "cheap grace" or "easy believeism". After all, he still walked away a Tax Collector!. Yet Jesus portrayed this as just the opposite - because
it's about what our faith is in. (BTW, don't ever call it "cheap grace" - God came down in human flesh, was rejected, tortured, and hung on a cross; paying the highest price for our redemption, just so he can give that redemption away for free. I do not want to be the man held accountable at the Judgement for calling it cheap, as if it was worth less than their works - this term is flat-out blasphemy).
This gets into something else that I think the Lord is showing in scripture - that of what "lukewarm" really is referring to in Revelation 3:16. Aside from the passage in Luke above, there is another humble, yet VERY profound passage in Luke 7, which I find many pastors ignore:
Now what her sins were isn't important (many, including me, have speculated), and I think Luke is being gracious in not telling us, because she is forgiven. Needless to say, Simon the Pharisee either knew of her sin or recognized what kind of sin she may have displayed.
What I find profound here in relation to Revelation 3 and Luke 18, is the part emphasized in v.47; when examined in the context of these verses:
Galatians 3:
Galatians 5:
James 2:
Romans 3:
John 7:
The core problem is that no one has kept the Law, and in not keeping the Law, WE ARE ALL GUILTY OF IT ALL. Meaning, that whether the woman in Luke 7 was a prostitute, a lesbian, a sorceress, a drug-user, a murderer, or whatever. WE are ALL bearing the same guilt, as NONE of us has met the standard, that is, righteous perfection of God. We are all homosexuals, fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate, abusers of themselves with mankind,thieves, covetous, drunkards, revilers, extortioners etc., and all those things that people say you have to stop doing in order to be forgiven of doing them in the first place (when they themselves are just as guilty).
Ergo, the core problem with Simon the Pharisee (and modern Pharisees), in light of verse 47, wasn't that he was any less a sinner than the woman, but that he was blind to his own sin.
I say again,
THE CORE PROBLEM WITH SIMON THE PHARISEE WASN'T THAT HE WASN'T ANY LESS A SINNER THAN THE WOMAN, BUT THAT HE WAS BLIND TO HIS OWN SIN.
Thus we have Laodicea, who was "lukewarm" (I wonder the actual etymology of that word) in that they thought their riches (products of their works) were evidence of their lack of need from God. In essence, their problem was that they were self-righteous, as blind to their own sin as Simon was. That's why Jesus tells them to go buy salve for their eyes.
However, keep in mind that this still was a church, but Jesus was warning them that they wouldn't remain in His service if things continued.
And that's why the men who tried to convince Jesus on the basis of their works in Matthew 7:21-23 were "workers of lawlessness", because they weren't wearing the only righteousness that ever met the Law: Christ's, which is attained by faith in Him; their faith was really in themselves and their works. Remember 2 Corinthians 11,
So how does works factor into grace? Answer: they don't; in fact, works and grace are mutually exclusive as Romans 11:6 defines.
In short, salvation isn't about your faithfulness, which is imperfect; it is about His, which is perfect because He is perfect - and righteousness is
imputed to us when we believe (Romans 4:5-6) in His sacrifice, which is for all sins - past, present, and future - for all time, and has (past tense) sanctified all those who believe (Hebrews 10:10-18). To say that obedience to some laws at the ignoring of others (remember the law is not just 10 commandments, but 613, which cannot be broken up - as said in Deuteronomy 4:2), makes one more worthy than others of salvation is to logically imply that Christ's sacrifice was incomplete and there are sins that He did not pay for, and that your work is needed to complete it.
(One more thing, I don't think the woman's tears in Luke 7 were "tears of repentance" ie. "turning from sin" in the modern vernacular...I think they were tears of joy. She gave him a gift of very expensive perfume as evidenced by the alabaster flask. Perhaps it was a gift, or type of gift, given to her by a lover, that she gave as a token of her love, because she put her faith in Christ as the Messiah who WILL redeem her).